Monday 4 May 2020

Odisha TET Syllabus Paper 1,2 Pattern & Syllabus

Odisha TET Syllabus 2020 | Download OTET Paper 1,2 AExam Pattern & Syllabus Pdf

OTET Syllabus 2020 Details – www.bseodisha.ac.in

Description
Details
Name of the Board
Board of Secondary Education, Odisha
Course Name
Odisha TET Exam
Category
Syllabus
Exam Date
Updated Soon
Job Location
Odisha
Official Website
www.bseodisha.ac.in
The Selection of the candidate for Teacher Posts in Odisha is based on the Written Exam of 2 papers (Paper 1 & Paper 2) followed by an interview.
Odisha TET Exam Pattern 2020 | OTET Exam Details
OTET Paper I Exam Paper Pattern 2020
Subject Name
No of Questions
Total Marks
Child Development &
Pedagogy
30
30
Language-I
(Odia/ Urdu/ Hindi/ Telugu/ Bengali)
30
30
Language-II (English)
30
30
Mathematics
30
30
Environment Studies
30
30
Total
150
150
OTET Paper 2 Exam Paper Pattern 2020
Subject Name
No of Questions
Total Marks
Child Development & Pedagogy
30
30
Language-I (Odia/ Urdu/ Hindi/ Telugu/ Bengali)
30
30
Language-II (English)
30
30
Optional Paper (A or B)
A – Mathematics & Science
Maths
30
60
Science
30
B – Social Studies
History
30
60
Political Science
30
Total
150
150
The Board of Secondary Education is conducting a Paper I and Paper II test for Teacher Post. However, each individual candidate is eligible for only one Paper at a time. If candidates are submitting OTET Application Form for both the Papers then their Application Form will be rejected.
Check the OTET 2020 Notification 

Download Odisha TET Syllabus 2020
It is suggested to all applicants that before appearing for the exam, go through the OTET Syllabus Pdf. If you check the OTET Odisha Exam Syllabus, you will be able to prepare well for the OTET exam. Read the detailed syllabus for the exam provided here.

Odisha TET Paper I Syllabus pdf

Child Development and Pedagogy

  • Understanding Child Development during Childhood (focus on children at the primary level).
  • Understanding the Learning Process and Learners.
  • The concept of Inclusive Education and Understanding Children with special needs.
  • Approaches to teaching and learning.
  • Assessment.

Mathematics

  • Mathematics Education in Schools.
  • Aims and objectives of teaching Mathematics.
  • Methods and Approaches to Teaching-Learning Mathematics.
  • Approaches: Constructivist and Activity-based.
  • Methods: Inductive, deductive, analysis, synthesis, play-way.
  • Assessment in Mathematics.
  • Formal and informal assessment.
  • Number System and Operation in Numbers.
  • Fundamental operation on numbers.
  • Factors and multiples – NCF and LCM.
  • Fractional numbers and decimals – operations in fractional numbers and decimals.
  • Measurement.
  • Measurement of area and perimeter of rectangle and square.
  • Shapes and Spatial Relationship.
  • The geometry of triangles, quadrilaterals, and circles.
  • Data Handling and Patterns.
  • Patterns in numbers and figures.

Environmental Studies (EVS)

  • Concept.
  • Integration of Science and Social Science.
  • Concept and Significance.
  • Aims and objectives of teaching and learning EVS.
  • Methods and Approaches.
  • Methods: Survey, Practical Work, discussion, observation, project.
  • Basic principles of teaching EVS.
  • Approaches: Activity-based, theme-based.
  • Evaluation in EVS.
  • Diagnostic assessment in EVS.
  • Governance.
  • Physical Features of Odisha and India.
  • Climate, Landscape, natural resources, agriculture, and industry.
  • Health and Diseases.
  • History of Freedom Struggle in India and Odisha.
  • Nutritional, deficiency, and diseases.
  • Air and water pollution.
  • Internal Systems of Human Body.
  • Matter, Force, and Energy.
  • Earth and sky, an effect of rotation and revolution of the earth.
  • Work and energy.
  • Matter and its properties.

Odisha TET Paper 1 Language Syllabus 

Language (Odia/ Urdu/ Hindi/ Telugu/ Bengali)

  • Learning Odia / Urdu / Hindi / Telugu / Bengali at elementary level.
  • Principles of language teaching.
  • Interdependence of four language skills.
  • Teaching, Reading and Writing Skills.
  • Teaching-learning composition and creative writing.
  • Challenges of teaching language in a diverse classroom, language difficulties and errors.
  • Assessment of learning Odia / Urdu / Hindi / Telugu / Bengali.
  • Remedial teaching.
  • Language items.
  • Synonyms and antonyms.
  • Formation of words – using prefix and suffix.
  • Language Comprehension.

Language (English)

  • Learning English at the Elementary Level.
  • Objectives of learning English.
  • Language Learning.
  • Challenges of teaching language in a diverse classroom.
  • Principles of language teaching.
  • Skills in learning English.
  • Techniques and activities for developing listening and speaking skills (recitation, storytelling, dialogue).
  • Development of writing skill – teaching composition.
  • Assessment of English.
  • Comprehension.
  • Language items.

Odisha TET Paper II Syllabus pdf

Child Development and Pedagogy

  • Child Development (Focus on Upper Primary School Children).
  • Effect of Heredity and Environment on development.
  • Features of Physical, Cognitive, Social, Emotional & Moral development during pre-adolescence and adolescence.
  • Needs and problems of adolescents.
  • Learning as meaning-making knowledge and construction.
  • Rote learning and meaningful learning.
  • How children learn – observation, initiation, trial, error, experience.
  • Factors affecting learning.
  • Addressing the needs of children with learning difficulties and impairment.
  • Curriculum Teaching-Learning Approaches and Evaluation.
  • Principles of curriculum organization.
  • Continuous comprehensive assessment of learning, planning, and designing achievement tests, rating scale, checklist.
  • Test reliability and validity.

OTET Paper 2 Language Syllabus

Language 1 (Odia/ Urdu/ Hindi/ Telugu/ Bengali)

  • Learning Odia / Urdu / Hindi / Telugu / Bengali at Upper Primary Level.
  • Development of language skills (speaking, reading, writing, and listening).
  • Teaching Language.
  • Teaching of grammar.
  • The teaching of non-detailed and detailed texts (prose, poetry).
  • Assessment of Language.
  • Planning and designing achievement tests and other tools for assessment.
  • Elements of Odia / Urdu / Hindi / Telugu / Bengali Language.
  • Parts of speech (noun, pronoun, verb, adverb, adjectives, conjunction).
  • Contribution of famous literates for the development of Odia / Urdu / Hindi / Telugu / Bengali language.
  • Urdu – Altaf Hussain Hali, Niaz Fatepuri, Ali Sardar Jafri, Amir Khusroo, Majrooh Sultanpur.
  • Odia-Fakir Mohan Senapati, Gangadhar Meher, Radhanath Ray, Surendra Mohanty, Gopinath Mohanty.
  • Hindi – Bharatendu Harischandra, Mahavir Prasad Dwivedy, Prem Chand, Jayashankar Prasad, Suryakanta Tripathy Nirala.
  • Telugu – Srinanthadu, Gurajuda Appa Rao, Kandukuri Veeresalingam, Arudra, C. Narayan Reddy.
  • Bengali – Rabindra Nath Tagore, Sarat Chandra Chhatopadhya, Tarasankar Bandopadhyay, Kazi Nazrul Islam, Bibhuti Bhusan Bandopadhyay.

Language II (English)

  • Learning English at Upper Primary Level.
  • Objective of learning English.
  • Basic skills of language (listening, speaking, reading, writing), the interdependence of skills.
  • Challenges of teaching English as a second language at the upper primary level.
  • Principles of language teaching.
  • Assessment of learning the English Language.
  • Comprehension.
  • Language Items.

Download Odisha Teacher Eligibility Test Exam Syllabus & Previous Paper
..
..

Sunday 3 May 2020

English Comprehension For Competitive Exams: Prose -1

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions /Comprehension Passage

Wives are young man's mistresses, companions for middle age, and old man's nurses. So as a man may have a quarrel to marry, when he will. But yet he was reputed one of the wisemen that made answer to the question when a man should marry. -A young man not yet, an elder man not at all. It is often seen that bad husband's have very good wives; whether it be that it raiseth the price of their husbands' kindnen when it comes, or that the wives take a pride in their patience. But this never fails, if the bad husbands were of their own chosing, against their friends' consent; for then they will be sure to make good their own folly.

Questions:
1. "A young man not yet, an elder man not at all."-this expression is an example
(A) Humour
(B) Sarcasun
(C) Exaggeration
(D) Wit

2. In the above passage the expression "A young man not yet" means-
(A) A young man shows marry without delay.
(B) A young man should never marry.
(C) A young man should marry only when he desires.
(D) A young man should not marry because he has as yet an inadequate experience
of life.

3. Wives are young men's-
(A) nurses
(B) companions
(C) mistress.
(D) friends.

4. A wife never fails in her devotion to a bad husband-
(A) because she is always afraid of her husband.
(B) if she has married that husband by her own choice.
(C) she has been advised to do so.
(D) she is dutiful.

5. Find out the word in the passage that means idiocy-
(B) patience
(C) kindness
(D) folly
(A) Pride.

Prose -1-14 Answer sheet

........................................................................................................................................................
Francis Bacon. (1561–1626).  Essays, Civil and Moral.
The Harvard Classics.  1909–14.
VIII

Of Marriage and Single Life

HE that hath wife and children hath given hostages to fortune; for they are impediments to great enterprises, either of virtue or mischief. Certainly the best works, and of greatest merit for the public, have proceeded from the unmarried or childless men; which both in affection and means have married and endowed the public. Yet it were great reason that those that have children should have greatest care of future times; unto which they know they must transmit their dearest pledges. Some there are, who though they lead a single life, yet their thoughts do end with themselves, and account future times impertinences. 1 Nay, there are some other that account wife and children but as bills of charges. Nay more, there are some foolish rich covetous men, that take a pride in having no children, because they may be thought so much the richer. For perhaps they have heard some talk, Such an one is a great rich man, and another except to it, Yea, but he hath a great charge of children; as if it were an abatement to his riches. But the most ordinary cause of a single life is liberty, especially in certain self-pleasing and humorous 2 minds, which are so sensible of every restraint, as they will go near to think their girdles and garters to be bonds and shackles. Unmarried men are best friends, best masters, best servants; but not always best subjects; for they are light to run away; and almost all fugitives are of that condition. A single life doth well with churchmen; for charity will hardly water the ground where it must first fill a pool. It is indifferent for judges and magistrates; for if they be facile and corrupt, you shall have a servant five times worse than a wife. For soldiers, I find the generals commonly in their hortatives put men in mind of their wives and children; and I think the despising of marriage amongst the Turks maketh the vulgar soldier more base. Certainly wife and children are a kind of discipline of humanity; and single men, though they may be many times more charitable, because their means are less exhaust, yet, on the other side, they are more cruel and hardhearted (good to make severe inquisitors), because their tenderness is not so oft called upon. Grave natures, led by custom, and therefore constant, are commonly loving husbands, as was said of Ulysses, vetulam suam prætulit immortalitati [he preferred his old wife to immortality]. Chaste women are often proud and froward, as presuming upon the merit of their chastity. It is one of the best bonds both of chastity and obedience in the wife, if she think her husband wise; which she will never do if she find him jealous. Wives are young men’s mistresses; companions for middle age; and old men’s nurses. So as a man may have a quarrel 3 to marry when he will. But yet he 4 was reputed one of the wise men, that made answer to the question, when a man should marry,—A young man not yet, an elder man not at all. It is often seen that bad husbands have very good wives; whether it be that it raiseth the price of their husband’s kindness when it comes; or that the wives take a pride in their patience. But this never fails, if the bad husbands were of their own choosing, against their friends’ consent; for then they will be sure to make good their own folly.

Of Marriage and Single Life by Francis Bacon



English Comprehension For Competitive Exams: Prose -1 19:48 to 23:23




English Comprehension For Competitive Exams: Prose -1 08:28 to 10:58

Impotent Information

Saturday 2 May 2020

English Comprehension For Competitive Exams: Prose -1-14 Answer sheet

English Comprehension For Competitive Exams: Prose -1-14 CORRECTION ANSWER SHEET

ENGLISH
COMPREHENSION : PROSE
Question No.1.
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D)
Question No.2.
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (B)
Question No.3.
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D)
Question No.4.
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (A)
Question No.5.
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A)
Question No.6.
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D)
Question No.7.
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B)
Question No.8.
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (B)5. (C)
Question No.9.
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A)
Question No.10.
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (A)
Question No.11.
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A)
Question No.12.
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B)
Question No.13.
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A)
Question No.14.
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B)

Tuesday 10 December 2019

Child Development and Pedagogy Frequently asked 100 MCQ

1.The word “Pedagogy” means?
A. to guide the child
B. to lead the child
C. to educate the child
D. to understand the child

2. Pedagogy is the study of
A.Education
B.Guiding Students
C.Learning Process
D.Teaching Methods
Child Development and Pedagogy Frequently asked 100 MCQ

3. Which one of the followings indicates child’s physical growth ?
A. Negative
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Positive

Special education

Special education is the practice of educating students in a way that addresses their individual differences and needs. Ideally, this process involves the individually planned and systematically monitored arrangement of teaching procedures, adapted equipment and materials, and accessible settings. Wikipedia

Wednesday 4 December 2019

MCQ on Components of food and Deficiency

Multiple Choice Questions on Components of food and Deficiency

1. Reduced number and size of RBCs and decreased amount of haemoglobin is a characteristic of
Hypochromic red blood cells may be seen in microcytic anaemia
a) Pernicious anaemia
b) Megaloblastic anaemia
c) microcytic anaemia
d) all of these

2. Bleeding disease is due to the deficiency of
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin K

3. All are nutritional disorders associated with over nutrition except
a) hypervitaminosis
b) obesity
c) fluorosis
d) Osteomalacia

4. Vitamin D deficiency is the reason for
a) Rickets
b) Anaemia
c) Pellagra
d) Goitre

5. Enlargement of thyroid gland is due to the deficiency of
a) Vitamin A
b) Pottasium
c) Iodine
d) Vitamin D

6. All are vitamin deficiency diseases except
a) Marasmus
b) Rickets
c) Scurvy
d) Cheilosis

7. Fluorosis is due to
a) deficiency of fluorine
b) excess of fluorine
c) deficiency of calcium and fluorine
d) none of these

8. Cyanocobalamine deficiency is the reason of
a) Pernicious anaemia
b) Microcytic anaemia
c) macrocytic anemia
d) Pellagra

9. The condition of inflammation and cracking of skin at corners of mouth is
a) Pellagra
b) Cheilosis
c) Scurvy
d) Rickets

10. Calcium deposition in soft tissues is due to
a) deficiency of vitamin D
b) excess of vitamin D
c) excess of vitamin C
d) deficiency of vitamin C

11. Deficiency of Calcium may lead to a condition called
a) Giotre
b) Anaemia
c) Tetany
d) Scurvy

12. Beriberi is due to the deficiency of
a) vitamin D
b) vitamin A
c) vitamin B1
d) vitamin C

Answers
1. c) microcytic anaemia
2. d) Vitamin K
3. d) Osteomalacia
4. a) Rickets
5. c) Iodine
6. a) Marasmus
7. b) excess of fluorine
8. a) Pernicious anaemia
9. b) Cheilosis
10. b) excess of vitamin D
11. c) Tetany
12. c) vitamin B1

Multiple Choice Questions on Vitamins


1. Vitamin K is required forVitamins

    a) Change of prothrombin into thrombin
    b) Synthesis of prothrombin
    c) Change of fibrinogen to fibrin
    d) Formation of thromboplastin

2. Calcium deficiency in the body occurs in the absence of

    a) Vitamin C
    b) Vitamin D
    c) Vitamin A
    d) Vitamin E

3. The Vitamin C or ascorbic acid prevents

    a) Scurvy
    b) Antibody synthesis
    c) Rickets
    d) Pellagra

4. The Haemorrhagic disease of new born is caused to the deficiency of

    a) Vitamin K
    b) Vitamin B12
    c) Vitamin A
    d) Vitamin B6

5. To which of the following families do folic acid and panthothenic acid belong?

    a) Vitamin C
    b) Vitamin K
    c) Vitamin A
    d) Vitamin B complex

6. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

    a) Vitamin E - Tocopherol
    b) Vitamin D - Riboflavin
    c) Vitamin B - Calciferol
    d) Vitamin A - Thiamine

7. Continuous bleeding from an injured part of body is due to deficiency of

    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin B
    c) Vitamin K
    d) Vitamin E


8. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    a) Vitamin C- Scurvy
    b) Vitamin B2- Pellagra
    c) Vitamin B2- Pernicious Anaemia
    d) Vitamin B6- Beri beri

9. Which one of the following is a fat soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

    a) Retinol- Xerophthalmia
    b) Cobalamine-Beri beri
    c) Calciferol- Pellagra
    d) Ascorbic acid- Scurvy

10. Which of the following is mismatched?

    a) Vitamin A- Xerophthalmia
    b) Vitamin D- Rickets
    c) Vitamin K- Beriberi
    d) Vitamin C-Scurvy

Answers

    1. b) Synthesis of Prothrombin
    2. b) Vitamin D
    3. a) Scurvy
    4. a) Vitamin K
    5. d) Vitamin B complex
    6. a) Vitamin E - Tocopherol
    7. c) Vitamin K
    8. b) and d)
    9. a) Retinol- Xerophthalmia
    10. c) Vitamin K- Beriberi

MCQ on Animal Physiology - Nutrition

1. Pepsine is secrete by

a) Zymogen cells of stomach
b) Zymogen cells of duodenum
c) pepsin cell
d)non of them

2. The deficiency marasmus in children is caused by due to the deficiency of
a) fats
b)carbohydrates
c)protine
d)vitamines

3. Starch is converted into maltase by the action of

a) invertase
b) amylase
c) sucrase
d) maltaase

4. The enzyme trypsin is found in
a) Pancreatic juice
b) Saliva
c) Bile juice
d) Intestinal juice

5. Crypts of Lieberkuhn is an example of
a) Simple tubular gland
b) coiled tubular gland
c) Simple alveolar gland
d) Compound alveolar gland

6.  During fasting, in what sequence that are the following organic compound used up by the body?
a) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
b)  First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids
c) First proteins, next lipids and lastly carbohydrates
d) First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins

7.  The principal action of enteropeptidase is only to activate - of the pancreatic juice
a) amino peptidase
b ) trypsinogen
c) trpsin
d) chymotrypsin

8. Enteropeptidase enzyme present in
a) saliva
b) gastric juice
c) intestinal juice
d) pancreatic juice

9. Due to the protein deficiency if symptoms like thin limbs, related growth of body and brain, oedema, diarrhoea etc., develop, then the disease is called

a) Pellagra
b) Kwashiorkor
c) Marasmus
d) Megaloblastic anaemia

10. Brunner’s gland are found in
a) stomach
b) ileum
c) duodenum
d) rumen

11. The enzyme trypsin is found in
a) pancreatic juice
b) saliva
c) bile juice
d) intestinal juice
a) 1223
    1223
b) 2132
    2132
c) 2123
    2123
d) 3212
    3212

13. Kuffer cells are found in
a) kidney
b ) liver
c) blood
d) heart

14. Stomach of camel does not have
a) rumen
b) reticulam
c) omasum
d) abomasum

15. The digestion of by amylase is completed in the
a) mouth
b) duodenum
c) ileum
d) stomach

Answers:
1. a) Zymogen cells of stomach
2. c) Proteins
3. b) amylase
4. a) Pancreatic juice
5. a) Simple tubular gland
6. d) First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
7. b ) trypsinogen
8. c) intestinal juice
9. b) Kwashiorkor
10. c) duodenum
11. a) pancreatic juice
12. c) 2123
          2123
13. b) liver
14. c) omasum
15. b) duodenum




learning and acquisition

Tuesday 3 December 2019

Sexism Gender bias

Sexism is prejudice or discrimination based on a person's sex or gender. Sexism can affect anyone, but it primarily affects women and girls. It has been linked to stereotypes and gender roles, and may include the belief that one sex or gender is intrinsically superior to another. Wikipedia

Monday 2 December 2019

CTET Paper 2015 September │Language 2 हिन्दी

Language II - हिन्दी
निर्देश (प्र.121-129) : नीचे दिए गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सबसे उचित उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए। ‘आदमी की तलाश'- यह स्वर अकसर सुनने को मिलता है। यह भी सुनने को मिलता है कि आज आदमी, आदमी नहीं रहा। इन्हीं स्थितियों के बीच दार्शनिक राधाकृष्णन की इन पंक्तियों का स्मरण हो आया- 'हमने पक्षियों की तरह उड़ना और मछलियों की तरह तैरना तो सीख लिया है, पर मनुष्य की तरह पृथ्वी पर चलना और जीना नहीं सीखा।' |

CTET Paper 2 2015 September │Social Studies [Error Less]

31. Choose an appropriate and meaningful written assignment in Social Science from the following:
(a) A summary of the chapter.
(b) Searching for an exact answer from the text book.
(c) The previous year's assignments.
(d) An original assignment that tests concepts.
32. To prevent cynicism among students about democratic institutions, which of the two given options would be most appropriate?
A. Emphasise ideal functioning and principles.
B. Indicate impossiblity of changing institutions.
C. Emphasise that social inequality is inevitable.
D. Indicate the role of informed public.
(a) Both A and D
(b) Both C and D
(c) Both C and B
(d) Both A and B
33. Choose the best method from among the following to encourage students to talk about gender roles in a Social Science class at the upper primary level.
(a) Lecture by an expert.
(b) Visit to an exhibition.
(c) Internet search by students.
(d) Guided discussion on experiences.
34. Portfolio is an important tool of continuous and comprehensive evaluation because
(a) it provides minimal information.
(b) it indicates skills developed in the students.
(c) it is compulsory.
(d) it is easy to implement.
35. Which type of learning source are you encouraging your students to use, when you show them a historical monument?
(a) Textual source
(b) Graphic resource
(c) Folk resource
(d) Primary source
36. "Imagine that you have come across two old newspapers reporting on the Battle of Shrirangapattanam and the death of Tipu Sultan. One is a British paper and the other is from Mysore. Write the headline for each of the two newspapers."  What is the reason for including this activity in the history textbook of class VIII?
(a) Develop the concept of diversity of views in students.
(b) Create a record of annexation by the British.
(c) Communicate British policies to the masses.
(d) Develop writing skills in students.
37. The National Curriculum Framework (2005) suggests that Social Science must link a child's life at school with:
(a) life outside the classroom
(b) bookish knowledge
(c) teachers' expectation
(d) life inside the classroom
38. Choose the most appropriate option: Students at upper primary level can be asked to go for a field visit as part of Social Science projects so that:
(a) it enables comparison of realities with the ideas and concepts.
(b) it frees the teacher to do other activities while students are busy.
(c) it fulfils the mandatory requirement of project completion.
(d) it is participative and fun for students.
39. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for teaching of Geography at the upper primary level?
(a) Field visit
(b) Story telling
(c) Debate
(d) Discussion
40. The teaching of social and political life textbooks at the upper primary level focusses on which one of the following approaches?
(a) Learning through definitions
(b) Rote learning
(c) Learning through synthesis of concepts
(d) Learning through real life situations
41. To teach the topic, 'Different types of Markets', which one of the following projects would be most appropriate?
(a) Visiting a shopping mall for seeing products sold there.
(b) Comparing prices at which shopkeepers buy and sell products.
(c) Exhibit products bought from the market in the classroom.
(d) Making collage on markets from newspapers and magazines.
42. In which one of the following scripts were most of the Ashokan inscriptions written?
(a) Brahmi
(b) Tamil
(c) Olchiki
(d) Devnagari
43. Some of the earliest Hindu temples had a hall where people could assemble. This place was known as:
(a) Mandapa
(b) Gramabhojaka
(c) Garbhagriha
(d) Pradakshina patha
44. Vinaya Pitaka is a book related to:
(a) Preachings of Mahavira
(b) Thoughts of Zoroaster
(c) Rules of the Buddhist Sangha
(d) Sanskrit Grammar
45. King Harshavardhana's court poet, Banabhatta wrote his biography, the 'Harshacharita' in:
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Prakrita
(c) Hindi
(d) Urdu
46. The earliest 'Viharas' for both Jains and Buddhist monks were made of:
(a) brick
(b) soil
(c) stone
(d) wood
47. Among which of the three dynasties was fought the 'Tripartite struggle', the long-drawn-out conflict over Kanauj?
(a) Rashtrakuta, Chola and Pala
(b) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Chola
(c) Pala, Rashtrakuta and Gurjara- Pratihara
(d) Gurjara-Pratihara, Pala and Chola
48. Khanqahs in Sufism refer to:
(a) discussion of parables
(b) places where SufiMasters held their assemblies
(c) a special kind of song
(d) chanting of a name
49. Which one of the following statements is correct about Chola temples?
(a) Chola temples were endowed with land by common people.
(b) Chola temples were the hub of economic, social and cultural life.
(c) The making of iron images was the most distinctive feature of Chola temples.
(d) Chola temples often became the nuclei of rural settlements only.
50. Which one of the following statements is correct about Tawarikh written for the Sultans of Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Tawarikh were written by those who hardly ever resided in cities.
(b) The authors of Tawarikh advised rulers on the need for good governance and just rule.
(c) Tawarikh were not written by the authors to get rich rewards from the Sultans.
(d) These were written in Urdu, the language of administration of the Delhi Sultanate.
51. Who among the following reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for women's education in the nineteenth century?
(a) Ziyauddin Barani
(b) Rukeya Sakhawat Hussain
(c) Mumtaz Ali
(d) Sayyid Ahmed Khan
52. Choose an appropriate reason for providing students an open book exercise in a classroom.
(a) Reading a text with specific questions.
(b) Evaluation of unprepared students.
(c) Encouraging use of textual langauge.
(d) Memorising details of a lesson.
53. Study of Social Science subjects is vital as it enables children to
(a) conserve natural resources.
(b) learn details about democracy.
(c) understand society and its environment.
(d) evaluate events from the past.
54. What is the most important reason for the use of storyboards in Social Science Teaching?
(a) Producing attractive textbooks.
(b) Providing simplistic information.
(c) Encouraging discussion on the given narrative.
(d) Narrating incidents.
55. Which one of the following activities is most appropriate for developing an understanding of the Indian Parliament's role and functions?
(a) Discussion on newspaper report on Parliament discruption.
(b) Holding a youth Parliament.
(c) Reading from the text.
(d) Flow diagram of functions and responsibilities.
56. A teacher suggests that students make a table recording the number of buckets of water used by a student in a week. After this activity, she initiates a discussion on water usage and conservation. Which method of learning is the teacher encouraging in the class?
(a) Enquiry method
(b) Deductive method
(c) Case-study method
(d) Problem solving method
57. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice: To organise knowledge and ideas conceptual resources include timelines, summaries _______ and _______
(a) exploratory software and questions bank.
(b) teacher modelling and bar graphs.
(c) memory cues and review questions.
(d) information maps and concept maps.
58. Activity based questions make Social Science lessons:
(a) comprehensive
(b) joyful
(c) debatable
(d) lengthy
59. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for developing an understanding of social problems?
(a) Case-study
(b) Film screening
(c) Photo essay
(d) Role-play
60. A teacher wants her students to know about government schemes through primary sources. Which one of the following schemes is inappropriate?
(a) An interview with a Block Development Officer.
(b) A survey of schemes in the students' neighbourhood.
(c) A report on expenditure incurred, on various schemes in the students' neighbourhood.
(d) A review of a book on government schemes.
61. Products of which one of the following are known as 'Black Gold'?
(a) Gold
(b) Petroleum
(c) Copper
(d) Coal
62. Which one of the following is NOT a nuclear power station of India?
(a) Tarapur
(b) Narora
(c) Pokhran
(d) Kalpakkam
63. Shifting agriculture is known as Milpa in:
(a) Malaysia (b) Mexico (c) Brazil (d) India
64. Which one of the following industries comes under public sector?
(a) Sudha Dairy
(b) Maruti Udyog Limited
(c) Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited
(d) Hindustan Aeronautic Limited
65. Which one of the following statements about Gram Sabha is correct?
(a) The Secretary of the Gram Sabha is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat and keeps a record of the proceedings.
(b) The developmental plans of all the Gram Panchayats are reviewed in the Gram Sabha.
(c) The Gram Sabha regulates the money distribution among all Gram Panchayats.
(d) It is the meeting place of the Sarpanchs of all the villages in a district.
66. Consider the following two statements A and B on people's participation in democracy and choose the correct answer: A: Organising social movements is a way to challenge the government and its functioning in a democracy. B: Democracy allows people to participate but all sections of people are not able to do so.
(a) Both A and B are true.
(b) A is false and B is true.
(c) Both A and B are false.
(d) A is true and B is false.
67. Which one of the following is the Tibetan National epic?
(a) Kesar saga
(b) Sidha saga
(c) Nirvana saga
(d) Buddha saga
68. Consider the following two statements about the functions performed by 'Patwari' and choose the correct answer from the following:
A: Patwari maintains and updates land records of a village or a group of villages.
B: Patwari is responsible for providing information to the government about the crops grown in the area under her/his jurisdiction.
(a) Both A and B are true.
(b) A is false and B is true.
(c) Both A and B are false.
(d) A is true and B is false.
69. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about democracy?
(a) In a democracy citizens enjoy certain freedoms.
(b) In a democracy a Ruler has absolute powers to rule the country.
(c) In a democracy people can raise questions about the decisions.
(d) In a democracy the country's citizens are allowed to elect whomever they want.
70. Campaigns have led to new laws for the protection of women. In 2006, a law was framed to protect women from:
(a) Sexual harassment
(b) Child abuse
(c) Unequal wages
(d) Domestic violence
71. Which one of the following statements about media is incorrect?
(a) The technology that mass media uses keeps on changing.
(b) An important function of mass media is to communicate information to the people.
(c) There is regular interference on the part of the government in the functioning of media.
(d) Money is earned through advertisements.
72. The cost to advertise on a news channel depends on:
(a) the demand of the viewers
(b) the big business houses
(c) the corporate sector
(d) the popularity of the channel
73. Consider the following two statements about Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and choose the correct answer:
A: It is a mechanism to seek necessary information about the functioning of the government.
B: It is a mechanism that allows any individual or organisation to file petition to secure justice in the High Court or Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights are violated.
(a) Both A and B are true.
(b) A is false and B is true.
(c) Both A and B are false.
(d) A is true and B is false.
74. Consider the following two statements A and B about the 'Question Hour Session’ of the Parliament and choose the correct answer:
A: The members of Parliament seek information about the working of the government.
B: It is a mechanism through which the executive controls the legislature.
(a) Both A and B are true.
(b) A is false and B is true.
(c) Both A and B are false.
(d) A is true and B is false.
75. Consider the following two statements A and B on Judicial Review and choose the correct answer:
A: The judiciary can strike down particular laws passed by the Parliament if there is a violation of the basic structure of the Constitution.
B: A bill cannot become a law unless it is passed by the Judiciary.
(a) Both A and B are true.
(b) A is false and B is true.
(c) Both A and B are false.
(d) A is true and B is false.
76. According to the Indian Constitution, which one of the following statements is incorrect about Indian Secular State?
(a) The State does not enforce any particular religion nor takes away religious freedom of individuals.
(b) The State allows government institutions to display and promote values specific to a particular religion.
(c) The State is not strictly separate from religion but it does maintain principled distance from religion. (d) Indian State is not ruled by any specific religious group.
77. The Indian State has:
(a) Capitalist form of government
(b) Presidential form of government
(c) Democratic form of government
(d) Communist form of government
78. Who among the following founded 'Satyashodhak Samaj' to propagate caste equality?
(a) Narayan Guru
(b) Haridas
(c) Jyotirao Phule
(d) Ghasidas
79. Who among the following was hanged to death for attacking his officers in Barrackpore, on 29th March, 1857?
(a) Raj Guru
(b) Sukhdev
(c) Mangal Pandey
(d) Bhagat Singh
80. Which one of the following statements about the British policy of ‘paramountcy’ is correct?
(a) It claimed that the authority of the company was supreme, hence its power was greater than that of the Indian states.
(b) It emphasised the practical benefits of a system of European learning as opposed to oriental learning.
(c) It declared that no other trading group in England could compete with East India Company.
(d) It declared that if the Indian ruler died without a male heir, his kingdom would be confiscated.
81. Which one of the following groups of planets has rings around it?
(a) Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus
(b) Saturn, Neptune, Mars
(c) Saturn, Venus, Neptune
(d) Saturn, Venus, Mars
82. Why is the earth described as a 'Geoid'? Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) Earth is neither too hot nor too cold.
(b) Two-thirds of earth's surface are covered with water.
(c) Favourable conditions are available on earth to support life.
(d) Earth is slightly flattened at the poles.
83. From the Earth, only one side of the moon is visible because it:
(a) takes exactly the same time in moving around the earth as the time to complete one spin.
(b) only moves around the earth, but does not spin.
(c) does not move around the earth, but only spins.
(d) takes more time in moving around the earth than the time to complete one spin.
84. The Ural Mountains separate:
(a) Asia and Europe
(b) Africa and Europe
(c) North America South America
(d) Africa and Asia
85. The place in the crust where the earthquake waves start is called:
(a) Focus
(b) Epicentre
(c) Crater
(d) Centre
86. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is most ideal for flying aeroplanes?
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Thermosphere
(d) Troposphere
87. Which one of the following is the most important factor that influences the distribution of temperature on the earth?
(a) Solar radiation
(b) Terrestrial radiation
(c) Distance from sea
(d) Insolation
88. Which one of the following statements about the Amazon Basin is correct?
(a) The Amazon river flows through the equatorial region in the western direction.
(b) The Amazon river forms Delta covered with Mangrove forests.
(c) The Amazon river basin drains portions from Brazil, Peru, Bolivia and Argentina.
(d) The Amazon basin falls in the equatorial region.
89. Which one of the following is the highest roadways of India in the world?
(a) Manali - Leh
(b) Shillong - Silcher
(c) Udhampur - Srinagar
(d) Itanagar - Pasighat
90. Which one of the following techniques is NOT a mitigation mechanism to control landslides?
(a) Construction of retention walls to stop land slippage.
(b) Decreasing vegetation cover to arrest landslides.
(c) Ensuring surface drainage control works to restrict the movement of landslides.
(d) Hazard mapping to identify areas prone to landslides.

Social Studies/ Social Science
31
(d)
32
(b)
33
(d)
34
(b)
35
(d)
36
(a)
37
(a)
38
(a)
39
(a)
40
(d)
41
(d)
42
(a)
43
(a)
44
(c)
45
(a)
46
(c)
47
(c)
48
(b)
49
(d)
50
(b)
51
(c)
52
(a)
53
(c)
54
(a)
55
(b)
56
(c)
57
(c)
58
(b)
59
(d)
60
(d)
61
(b)
62
(c)
63
(b)
64
(d)
65
(a)
66
(b)
67
(a)
68
(a)
69
(b)
70
(d)
71
(c)
72
(a)
73
(b)
74
(d)
75
(d)
76
(b)
77
(c)
78
(c)
79
(c)
80
(a)
81
(a)
82
(d)
83
(a)
84
(a)
85
(a)
86
(a)
87
(a)
88
(d)
89
(a)
90
(b)